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Humanitarian University Consortium
Distance Education Initiative

Foreign Animal Disease Online Test

Presented by

Stephen M. Apatow, Director of Research and Development  
Humanitarian University Consortium Graduate Studies Center for Medicine, Veterinary Medicine and Law

The following online test encompasses 200 questions (True/False) related to the foreign animal diseases outlined in The Gray Book. 

Fee: $50.00 processing fee, required for validation: certificate of completion.

Upon payment of the processing fee, completion and submission of this test, individuals with a passing grade of 75% or above will receive a certificate of completion by Humanitarian Resource Institute.






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1. African animal trypanosomiasis (AAT) is a disease complex caused by tsetse-fly-transmitted Trypanosoma congolense, T. vivax, or T. brucei brucei, or simultaneous infection with one or more of these trypanosomes. True or False..

2. T. congolense resides in the subgenus Nannomonas, a group of small trypanosomes with medium-sized marginal kinetoplasts, no free flagella, and poorly developed undulating membranes and is considered to be the single most important cause of AAT in east Africa. True or False..

3. Ruminants are widely known not to be active reservoirs of the trypanosomes. True or False..

4. Of the three African animal trypanosomes, only T. vivax occurs in the Western Hemisphere in at least 10 countries in the Caribbean and South and Central America.  True or False..

5. T. congolense localizes in tissue.  True or False..

6. The the trypanosome has genes that can code for many different surface-coat glycoproteins and change its surface glycoprotein to evade the antibody.  True or False..

7.The cardinal clinical sign observed in AAT is infertility of males and females.  True or False..

8. Stress, such as poor nutrition or concurrent disease, plays a prominent role in the disease process, and under experimental conditions, where stress may be markedly reduced, it is difficult to elicit clinical disease.  True or False..

9.  The marked immunosuppression resulting from trypanosome infection lowers the host's resistance to other infections and causes in secondary disease, which greatly complicates both the clinical and pathological features of trypanosomiasis.  True or False..

10.  The presence of trypanosomes cannot be observed by microscopic examination.  True or False..


11. The clinical signs and lesions of African horsesickness (AHS) result from selective increased vascular permeability and are characterized by an impairment of the respiratory and circulatory systems.  True or False..

12. Blood in OCG preservative (500 ml glycerin, 500 ml distilled water, 5 g sodium oxalate, and 5 g carbolic acid) can remain infective for more than 20 years; lyophilization may preserve infectivity for as long as 40 years.  True or False..

13. African horse sickness is a noncontagious disease, and the virus was the first shown to be transmitted by midges (Culicoides spp.)  True or False..

14. C. variipennis, which is common in many parts of the United States, is a potential vector. True or False..

15. The Peracute or Pulmonary Form of AHS is characterized by very marked and rapidly progressive respiratory involvement.  True or False..

16. The Subacute Edematous or Cardiac Form of AHS is marked by characteristic edematous swellings of the lower limbs.  True or False..

17. The Acute or Mixed Form of AHS is easily diagnosed clinically.  True or False..

18. Horsesickness Fever is the mildest form of AHS and is frequently overlooked in natural outbreaks. True or False..

19. In susceptible horse populations, the fatalities range between 70 and 95 percent, and the prognosis is extremely poor.   True or False..

20.  Field strains of AHS virus may cause encephalitis and retinitis in humans following transnasal infection.  True or False..


21. For many years the ASF agent was classified as an iridovirus but in recent years it was found to have many characteristics of poxvirus.  True or False..

22. The virus will survive for 15 weeks in putrefied blood, 3 hours at 50o C, 70 days in blood on wooden boards, 11 days in feces held at room temperature, 18 months in pig blood held at 4o C, 150 days in boned meat held at 39o F, and 140 days in salted dried hams  True or False..

23. Ornithodoros ticks collected from Haiti, the Dominican Republic, and southern California have been shown to be capable vectors of ASFV.  True or False..

24. Because ASFV-infected ticks can infect pigs, ASFV is the only RNA virus that can qualify as an arbovirus. True or False..

25. the primary method of spread from country to country has been through the feeding of uncooked garbage containing ASFV-infected pork scraps to pigs.  True or False..

26. Aerosol transmission is considered important in the spread of ASF. True or False..

27. After intranasal-oral exposure, pigs usually develop fever and leukopenia in 48 to 72 hours. True or False..

28. In the case of a highly virulent isolates, mortality in a previously unexposed herd will usually be 100 percent in pigs that have contact with each other.  True or False..

29. African swine fever has frequently been misdiagnosed as hog cholera.  True or False..

30. Differential diagnoses for ASF should include hog cholera, erysipelas, salmonellosis, and eperythrozoonoisis. True or False..


31. Congenital arthrogryposis-hydranencephaly (A-H) syndrome is an infectious disease of the bovine, caprine, and ovine fetus caused by intrauterine infection and interference with fetal development after transmission to the dam caused by contact with infected tissues, exudates, or fomites.  True or False..

32. The Cache Valley virus, a mosquito-borne member of the Bunyaviridae outside the Simbu group, has been found to reproduce a similar syndrome in ruminants within the United States.  True or False..

33. Sentinel cattle under close observation have no clinical sign during viremia induced by natural infection. True or False..

34. The pregnant dam has no clinical manifestation at the time of infection with virus. True or False..

35. An individual fetus or newborn may have arthrogryposis and hydranecephaly or both syndromes. True or False..

36. In endemic areas, animals are exposed and become immune before becoming pregnant; thus, congenital abnormalities are seldom seen in native animals, for antibodies prevent virus from spreading from the site of the bite to the fetus.  True or False..

37. Fetal brain lesions resulting from bluetongue vaccine virus infections of pregnant ewes can clearly be differentiated from those produced within the congenital A-H syndrome. True or False..


38. All influenza viruses affecting domestic animals (equine, swine, avian) belong to Type B and C.  True or False..

39. The AI viruses are often recovered from apparently healthy migratory waterfowl, shore birds, and sea birds worldwide leading to the generally accepted belief that waterfowl serve as the reservoir of influenza viruses. True or False..

40. Morbidity and mortality rates for flocks infected with HPAI  may be near 100 percent within 2 to 12 days after the first signs of illness. True or False..

41. Velogenic Viscerotropic Newcastle Disease is easily confused with Highly pathogenic avian influenza because the disease signs and postmortem lesions are similar.  True or False..

42. Amantadine hydrochloride has been licensed for use in humans to treat influenza is also recommended for use in poultry. True or False..

43. An influenza virus isolated from harbor seals that died of pneumonia had the HA and NA surface antigens of an influenza virus isolated from turkeys a decade earlier. True or False..


44. B. bigemina and B. bovis, which are transmitted primarily by Boophilus ticks are two of the Babesia species that are of most concern in the United States.  True or False..

45. As a result of a tick eradication program completed by 1943, bovine babesiosis ceased to exist in the United States and  is now considered an exotic disease of cattle. True or False..

46. The eradication campaign in the United States conducted in the 1920's and 1930's relied largely on dipping all cattle every 2-3 weeks in vats charged with arsenical acaricides. True or False..

47. The presence of Ixodes ticks (I. scapularis, I. pacificus, and I. dammini) in the United States suggests the potential for this babesia to become established here. True or False..

48. Clinical signs of babesiosis include fever, anemia, jaundice, and hemoglobinuria and erythrocytic destruction. True or False..

49. Anaplasmosis, trypanosomiasis, theileriosis, leptospirosis, bacillary hemoglobinuria, hemobartonellosis, and eperythrozoonosis may resemble babesiosis.  True or False..

50. There is a marked concentration of B. bigemina infected erythrocytes in the capillaries of the brain making brain biopsies very useful in detecting and diagnosing infection. True or False..

51. Among fully susceptible older cattle, the mortality may reach 100 percent without treatment. True or False..

52. Small babesias are less resistant to chemotherapy.  True or False..

53. Sanitation and disinfection contribute to an abatement of the disease incidence in enzootic areas. True or False..


54. Bluetongue and Epizootic Hemorrhagic Disease have been refered to as pseudo foot-and-mouth disease. True or False..

55. Worldwide, 9 serotypes of BTV and 24 serotypes of EHDV have been identified.  True or False..

56. Virus distribution is based on the presence of certain Culicoides species.  True or False..

57. BT in sheep usually does not cause any clinical sign of disease and is only evidenced by changes in the leukocyte and lymphocyte subpopulation counts in the peripheral blood and a mild acute eosinophilic dermatitis.  True or False..

58. In White-tailed deer morbidity approaches 100 percent and a mortality of 80-90 pecent. True or False..

59. Inactivated or subunit vaccines have been the primary means of controlling BT disease in sheep. True or False..


60. The BEF virus is a double-stranded RNA, ether-sensitive rhabdovirus with five structural proteins. True or False..

61. The necessity for the BEF virus to be delivered intravenously to reproduce disease experimentally, plus the absence of the virus from in the lymph during early viremia, strongly supports biting midges of the genus Culicoides as the major vectors. True or False..

62. A high percentage of neutrophils with many immature forms is not pathognomonic of ephemeral fever, but if not present the field diagnosis is likely to be wrong. True or False..

63. Ephemeral fever is one of the rare virus diseases for which treatment is effective.  True or False..


64. Transmissible spongiform encephalopathies (TSE's) are caused by a transmissible agent that is yet to be fully characterized.  True or False..


65. The etiologic agent of the classical disease is Mycoplasma agalactiae.  True or False..

66. M. agalactiae outbreaks occur in the summer months and coincide with the time of births and peak lactation. True or False..

67. The economic impact of the disease lies in its high mortality.   True or False..

68. The efficacy of inactivated vaccines is high for the the prevention of CA.  True or False..


69. The Bureau of Animal Industries, which is the forerunner of the USDA's Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, was formed in 1884 specifically to eradicate CBPP. True or False..

70. Clinical diagnosis of CBPP is easy since all stages of pathologic changes, from acute through to chronic, are present in one animal.  True or False..

71. Because CBPP is a subacute to chronic disease, most animals will have developed antibodies by the time of clinical disease.  True or False..

72. In the case of chronically affected animals or subclinically affected carriers, the organisms may be in an inaccessible location within an area of coagulative necrosis, which by definition is not served by a blood supply. True or False..


73. Mycoplasma mycoides capri is easily propagated on standard mycoplasma media and can easily be missed at diagnosis, which may explain its late recognition as the major cause of CCPP. True or False..

74.The LC variant of M. mycoides mycoides will cause pneumonia closely resembling CCPP and does occur in North America.  True or False..

75. Both mycoplasma F-38 and M. mycoides capri have been isolated in North America.  True or False..

76. Mycoplasma F-38  tends to cause a more generalized infection in which septicemia is frequently seen. True or False..

77. CCPP may be confused with other pneumonic conditions such as pasteurellosis and peste des petits ruminants. True or False..


78. Contagious equine metritis (CEM) is a microaerophilic gram-positive coccobacillus.  True or False..

79. The disease does not become evident until 24 hours after exposure to CEMO postbreeding. True or False..

80. The uterine infection can be treated with antibiotics, but it is questionable whether treatment effectively eliminates or facilitates elimination of the CEMO.  True or False..


81. Dourine is caused by Trypanosoma equiperdum.  True or False..

82. This venereal disease is spread almost exclusively by coitus with transmission most likely later in the disease process. True or False..

83. Anemia and cachexia are consistent findings in animals that have succumbed to dourine. True or False..

84. If "silver dollar plaques" occur, they are pathognomonic for dourine. True or False..

85. A reliable enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay test (ELISA) has been the basis for the successful eradication of dourine from many parts of the world. True or False..

86. The perineal and ventral abdominal edema characteristic of dourine may also be seen in horses with anthrax, equine infectious anemia or equine viral arteritis. True or False..

87. Treatment may result in inapparent disease carriers and is not recommended in a dourine-free territory. True or False..

88. The most successful prevention and eradication programs have focused on serologic identification of infected animals. True or False..


89. The causative agent of classical ECF is Theileria parva.  True or False..

90. The life cycle of T. parva is complex in its tick and mammalian hosts through a process termed "parasite-induced reversible transformation" True or False..

91. Ticks can remain infected on the pasture for up to 5 years depending on the climatic conditions. True or False..

92. ECF is a dose- dependent disease and some stocks of parasites cause a chronic wasting disease. True or False..

93. In many epidemiological situations, high mortality occurs only in the adult cattle,  calves represent immune survivors. True or False..

94. Identification of schizonts in lymphoid cells is considered to be pathognomonic of ECF.  True or False..

95. ECF may be confused with those of a variety of diseases such as Heartwater, Trypanosomiasis, Babesiosis,  anaplasmosis, Malignant catarrhal fever.  True or False..


96. Epizootic lymphangitis is caused by a dimorphic fungus.  True or False..

97. H. farciminosum is introduced via open wounds. True or False..

98.  The similarity of epizootic lymphangitis to glanders, strangles and ulcerative lymphangitis makes laboratory confirmation essential.  True or False..


99. Equine morbillivirus pneumonia has been reported only in Australia. True or False..

100. For both animals and humans, EMV seems to require direct contact with respiratory secretions of infected animals. True or False..

101. Since three human infections and two human deaths in only two outbreaks of this disease have occured, maximum precautions should be used if this disease is suspected. True or False..


102. Foot-and-mouth disease (FMD) is a highly contagious viral infection primarily of cloven-hoofed domestic animals and cloven-hoofed wild animals and is characterized by fever and vesicles with subsequent erosions in the mouth, nares, muzzle, feet, or teats. True or False..

103. Examples of other susceptible species are hedgehogs, armadillos, nutrias, elephants, capybaras, rats, and mice.  True or False..

104. After an animal becomes infected by any means, the primary mode of spread is then via respiratory aerosols. True or False

105. Sheep act as amplifiers of FMDV.  True or False..

106. An infected pig can produce a hundred million infectious doses per day. True or False..

107. Differential diagnosis for FMD should include vesicular stomatitis, swine vesicular disease, vesicular exanthema of swine, foot rot, and chemical and thermal burns.  True or False..

108. Serological tests are available to detect antibody and differentiate infected and vaccinated animals. True or False..

109. Protection induced by a good aluminum hydroxide vaccine can protect for up to 1 year.  True or False..

110. Vaccinated animals that are not completely protected can be a source of infection. True or False  ..

111. Experimental results indicating that potent vaccine may induce significant immunity in 4 days to protect exposed cattle to FMD. True or False..


112. In many areas of the world, particularly the tropics, arthropod-borne diseases are among the major limiting factors to the efficient production of livestock and poultry. True or False..

113. Over half of all exotic diseases of livestock and poultry of critical concern to the United States are arthropod-borne. True or False..

114. As a whole, mosquitoes are the most versatile vectors, for they parasitize all vertebrate groups except fish. True or False..

115. Although over 2,500 species of mosquitoes have been described worldwide in 18 genera and subgenera, those species of greatest importance as vectors of pathogenic agents are found in the genera Aedes, Culex, Anopheles, and Mansonia.  True or False..

116. Increased attention should be given to Biting midges, particularly species of the genus Culicoides, as animal disease vectors.  True or False..

117. Culicoides varipennis, is incompetent to transmit bluetongue virus in the Northeastern United States while populations of the same species from the Southwest and Western States are extremely efficient vectors of the virus. True or False..


118. Glanders is a highly contagious disease of solipeds caused by Pseudomonas mallei and poses a significant human health risk. True or False..

119.  Pseudomonas mallei is closely related to Ps. pseudomallei, the cause of melioidosis, but is serologically distinguishable in most cases.  True or False..

120. Signs of glanders must be distinguished from strangles, epizootic lymphangitis, ulcerative lymphangitis, melioidosis, and other forms of pneumonia. True or False..

121. A dot enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay has been developed and found to be superior to mallein testing, the complement fixation test and counter-immunoelectrophoresis test, in its sensitivity.  True or False..

122. Human glanders may be confused with a variety of other diseases, including typhoid fever, tuberculosis, syphilis, erysipelas, lymphangitis, pyemia, yaws, and melioidosis. True or False..


123. Heartwater (HW) is an acute contagious infectious disease caused by Cowdria ruminantium, a rickettsial agent. True or False..

124. The presence of Amblyomma ticks plus the rather characteristic signs and lesions of heartwater allows tentative field diagnosis of the disease.  True or False..

125. The peracute form of HW can be confused with anthrax. True or False..

126. The acute nervous form of HW can be confused with rabies, tetanus, chlamydiosis, bacterial meningitis or encephalitis, cerebral trypanosomiasis, piroplasmosis or theileriosis, and various intoxications such as with strychnine, lead, organophosphates, or chlorinated hydrocarbons. True or False..


127. Classical hemorrhagic septicemia is a particular form of pasteurellosis caused by Pasteurella multocida.  True or False..

128. The immune status of the animal is thought to influence the severity of the disease.  True or False..

129. Definitive diagnosis depends upon the identification of the cultures as P. multocida and the subsequent identification of serotype B:2 or E:2 therefore serologic procedures for the detection of specific antibody are used in diagnosis. True or False..

130. Several serotypes of P. multocida can cause a variety of human infections.  True or False..


131. Although minor antigenic variants of hog cholera virus (HCV) have been reported, there is only one serotype.   True or False..

132. The most common lesion observed in pigs dying of acute HC is hemorrhage. True or False..

133. Microscopic lesions of an encephalitis characterized by perivascular cuffing, endothelial proliferation, and microgliosis are recognized in a nonspecialized diagnostic laboratory and may constitute the most important single factor that will cause the pathologist to suspect HC. True or False..


134. People and horses are victims of the JE virus infection but appear to be dead-end hosts from an epidemiologic standpoint.  True or False..

135. Swine in Japan and Taiwan are both victims of disease as well as amplifiers of infection in nature. True or False..

136. Culex mosquitoes and birds are common factors in the epidemiology of JE.  True or False..

137. Experimental infection of boars leads to diminished sperm count and decreased mobility of sperm through virus has not been transmitted to gilts by way of infected semen. True or False..

138. A presumptive diagnosis in swine is based on the birth of litters with a high percentage of stillborn or weak piglets. True or False..

139. Demonstration of JE-specific IgM in serum of an encephalitic equine is presumptive evidence of the diagnosis. True or False..

140. Japanese encephalitis can cause an explosive, highly fatal form of human encephalitis. True or False..


141. Ixodes persulcatus is considered the natural vector of Louping-ill..  True or False..

142. Concurrent infection with either Cytoecetes plagocytophila or Toxoplasma gondii can enhance the pathogenicity of the virus.  True or False..

143. Louping-ill in sheep may be confused clinically with a range of other infectious and noninfectious diseases, including scrapie, pregnancy toxemia, hypocalcemia, tetanus, listeriosis, tick pyemia, hypocuprosis ("swayback"), rabies, hydatid disease, and various plant poisons. True or False..

144. Louping-ill in cattle must be differentiated from malignant catarrhal fever, listeriosis, pseudorabies, bovine spongiform encephalopathy, rabies, hypomagnesemia, hypocalcemia, acute lead poisoning, and certain plant poisons. True or False..

145. The single most important means of controlling LI in areas endemic for the disease is vaccination. True or False..

146.  Louping-ill virus is not transmissible to humans.  True or False..


147. The LSDV is very closely related serologically to the virus of sheep and goat pox (SGP) from which it cannot be distinguished by routine virus neutralization or other serological tests. True or False..

148. Biting lice (Mallophaga spp.), sucking lice (Damalinia spp.), or Culicoides nubeculosus experimentally transmitted LSDV.  True or False..

149. Treatment is directed at preventing or controlling secondary infection. True or False..


150. The etiologic agent of MCF in Africa is a highly cell-associated lymphotropic herpesvirus of the subfamily Gamma herpesvirinae with two viral strains have recently designated: alcelaphine herpesvirus-1 (AHV-1) and alcelaphine herpesvirus-2 (AHV-2).  True or False..

151. Viruses identical or closely related to AHV-1 and AHV-2 have been isolated from several captive wild ruminant species in two U.S. zoos located in Oklahoma City and San Diego.  True or False..

152.  In some parts of New Zealand, MCF is, along with tuberculosis, the most important cause of mortality in the deer-farming industry.  True or False..

153. Clinical MCF must be distinguished from other diseases and factors that produce inflammation and erosions and ulcerations of the nasal and alimentary tract mucosas such as BVD mucosal disease, bluetongue, rinderpest, vesicular diseases (FMD, VS), ingested caustics, and some poisonous plants and mycotoxins. True or False..


154. Nairobi sheep disease virus (NSDV) is transmitted primarily by the African bont tick (Amblyomma variegatum). True or False..

155. Spleen and mesenteric lymph nodes are the best tissues for virus isolation during the febrile stage.  True or False..

156. The disease must be differentiated from heartwater, Rift Valley fever, anthrax, some types of plant and heavy metal poisoning, peste des petits ruminants, and coccidiosis. True or False..


157. Vector-borne diseases, such as parafilariasis in cattle, are restricted to certain geographical regions that coincide with those of their vectors.   True or False..

158. The life cycle of P. bovicola begins when flies feed on the bleeding points of parafilariasis-affected cattle and ingest infective microfilariae (third-stage larvae).  True or False..

159. Subcutaneous lesions on the carcasses of affected cattle look remarkably like bruises caused by handling and transport before slaughter.  True or False..

160. A real threat exists to the beef industry in the United States, because of the presence of the face fly, Musca autumnalis. True or False..

161. Parafilaria-induced lesions can easily be differentiated from bruises by the presence of an eosinophilic infiltrate and by isolating the nematode.  True or False..


162. Peste des petits ruminants is caused by a paramyxovirus of the Morbillivirus genus. Other members of the genus include rinderpest virus (RPV), measles virus (MV), canine distemper virus (CDV), and phocid distemper virus (PDV) of sea mammals (seals).  True or False..

163. Subclinical infections of PPRV in Cattle and pigs result in seroconversion, and cattle are protected from challenge with virulent rinderpest virus (RPV). True or False..

164. Peste des petits ruminants is not very contagious and transmission requires close contact. True or False..

165. The pathology caused by PPR is dominated by inflammatory and necrotic lesions in the mouth and the gastrointestinal tract.  True or False..

166. Clinically, RP and PPR are similar, but the former should be the prime suspect if the disease involves both cattle and small ruminants.  True or False..


167. Rift Valley fever is caused by a three-stranded RNA virus in the Phlebovirus genus of the family Bunyaviridae   True or False..

168. Humans develop a sufficient viremia to be a source of infection for mosquitoes and thus could introduce the disease into uninfected areas.  True or False..

169. RVF could be misdiagnosed as bluetongue, Wesselsbron, ephemeral fever, enterotoxemia of sheep, brucellosis, vibriosis, trichomoniasis, Nairobi sheep disease, heartwater, or ovine enzootic abortion.  True or False..

170. In an epizootic, widespread vaccination of all susceptible animals to prevent infection of amplifying hosts and thus infection of vectors is the only way to prevent infection of animals and man.  True or False..


171. Multiple serotypes and field strains of rinderpest virus vary widely in virulence, ease of transmission, and host affinity. True or False..

172. The differential diagnosis for RP should include bovine virus diarrhea (mucosal disease), infectious bovine rhinotracheitis, malignant catarrhal fever, foot-and-mouth disease, vesicular stomatitis, salmonellosis, paratuberculosis, and arsenic poisoning. True or False..

173. Experimentally, the vaccinia-vectored RP vaccine protected cattle against challenge inoculation with RPV.  True or False..

174. Serological monitoring of sheep and goats could be complicated by using RP vaccine to protect against peste des petits ruminants.  True or False..


175. Screwworms are classified as facultative larvae, which feed on dead tissue and decaying matter. True or False..

176. Chrysomya bezziana (Villeneuve) was first reported in the southeastern part of the United States in 1933. True or False..

177. Eradication of the screwworm has been successful only when the sterile-male technique has been applied to an area. True or False..


178. Severe (extensive) skin lesions are usually apparent in subclinical infection of Sheep and goat pox virus.  True or False..

179. Skin lesions have congestion, hemorrhage, edema, vasculitis, and necrosis and will be seen to involve all layers of the epidermis, dermis, and, in severe cases, extend into the adjacent musculature.  True or False..

180. A tentative diagnosis of SGP can be made on the basis of clinical signs consisting of skin lesions, which on, palpation involve the whole thickness of the skin, a persistent fever, lymphadenitis, and often pneumonia.  True or False..


181. Swine vesicular disease virus is in the enterovirus group of picornaviruses and is closely related to the human enterovirus Coxsackie B-5.  True or False..

182. Recent outbreaks in Europe appeared after the introduction of animals that had a subclinical form of the disease.  True or False..

183. Fever, vesicles in the mouth and on the snout and feet, and lameness are all grossly indistinguishable from FMD. True or False..

184. An unsteady gait, shivering, and chorea — (jerking) — type leg movements due to an encephalitis are more suggestive of SVD.  True or False..


185. Mesogenic VND isolates are considered exotic to the United States.  True or False..

186. The most noteworthy clinical sign in unvaccinated flocks is sudden death without prior indications of illness. True or False..

187. Peracute deaths are generally due to collapse or dysfunction of the reticuloendothelial system before discernible gross lesions have developed. True or False..

188. Peyer's patches (Fig. 109), cecal tonsils (Fig.110), and other focal aggregations of lymphoid tissue in the gut progressively become edematous, hemorrhagic, necrotic, and ulcerative.  True or False..

189. In species such as finches and canaries, the morbidity and mortality rates can be as high as 100 percent and 90 percent, respectively. True or False..

190. The viscerotropic, velogenic Newcastle disease in poultry can be confused with highly pathogenic avian influenza, infectious laryngotracheitis, fowl cholera, and coryza. True or False..

191. Vaccination makes the flock more refractive to infection when exposed and reduces the quantity of virus shed by infected flocks. True or False..


192. Horses are the most important amplifiers of VEE virus during epizootics owing to the extremely high viremias that they develop and the large numbers of hematophagous insects that can feed on an animal of such size.  True or False..

193. Experimental studies and field experiences have shown that viremia terminates before signs of clinical encephalitis are exhibited by VEE virus-infected equines. True or False..


194. Horses, cattle, and pigs are naturally susceptible to Vesicular stomatitis (VS). True or False..

195. Animals have lesions at more than one site of predilection.  True or False..

196. Differential diagnosis for VS in cattle should include foot-and-mouth disease, foot rot,  oral lesions caused by rinderpest, infectious bovine rhinopneumonitis, bovine virus diarrhea, malignant catarrhal fever, bluetongue, chemical and thermal burns.  True or False..

197. In pigs, the differential diagnosis for VS should include foot-and-mouth disease, swine vesicular disease, vesicular exanthema of swine, foot rot, and chemical and thermal burns. True or False..


198. Mortality is usually 90 percent in conventionally raised rabbits, and often only suckling rabbits are spared. True or False..

199. Diffuse hepatic necrosis with a periportal pattern accompanied by microthrombi in multiple organs is characteristic of this disease in rabbits. True or False..

200. Rabbits are known to shed virus for at least 4 weeks after clinical recovery from this disease. True or False..